by One Guy » Tue Mar 02, 2010 11:50:54 AM
I would like some clarification. If a collection agency purchases a debt from lets say a bank. How can they possibly collect if the debtor did not agree to this? The collection agency would not have a legal contract with the debtor, so what would be the obligation to pay.
The original party (the bank) received compensation from the sale of the debt and the write off of the loss, so they would no longer have a claim, how can the collection agency legally collect this debt if the debtor refuses to recognize them??
Can anybody clear this up for me?