by Raymond » Fri Jan 25, 2008 07:53:14 AM
I don't want to beat this to death much longer. If you would order the long free format versions of your credit files from the 2 bureaus, at least the Equifax one has a summation info page called "Retention Period of Data"
The page explains how long they keep stuff for. The oustanding balance on the Citibank Home Depot account last Jan.18, 2007 was such and such an amount as at that date. That doesn't mean it's going to stay on there for 6 more years after that date. It refers to the date of last activity.
As I've said 'til I'm blue in the face, SELDOM does what's on a credit report from either one of the 2 bureaus match what the correct information actually is once your file gets delinquent items. You've got to get them to fix it. In practice, this can be a very time consuming, aggravating, but nonetheless a very WORTHWHILE excercise. If there are several items with incorrect information, you might have to deal with each bureau in several stages before all is set right. Again, keeping all your past receipts and account statements is invaluable in accomplishing this task.
PMS has a standard policy of asking for 85% of the amount outstanding with accumulated interest grandfathered at the rate that accompanied the account. Or 100% of the charge off amount, that is to say, what the accumulated amount was including accrued interest when they bought it from the original creditor. They give you this schtick even if the debt is stats barred and they have no legal recovery remedy other than sticking hard inquiries on your credit file every year to pressure you into settling.
The debt they buy up is always part of a large portfolio. Sometimes the rates are published in collectionsworld.com. Whatever; they certainly didn't pay more than a fraction of a penny on the dollar for a portfolio several years old. Some of this debt will be stats barred depending on where and when the debt holder took out the account. From there on they work the numbers. You've got to realize that if the original creditor had a good reason for not suing you, PMS likely won't either. It's more expeditious and profitable to have oily chamelion - like collectors work the numbers on the phone and generate return on investment that way.
If PMS paid say 10 bucks for your account, if they got even a $100 for it, they would still be making a handsome profit on their investment. So why should you pay $3400 PMS, retorts. Yes, we only paid 10 bucks for your account, but statistically, the expection rate of recovery on any given account may only be one in twenty. That is if we buy 20 accounts, we may only realize a recovery on one of them. That's why the price was so low to begin with. You retort that, yeah, PMS may only get back a return on one in twenty accounts but why should I have to bear the burden of what the other 19 guys do. I didn't borrow their money; they did, and so I'm not responsible for their debts going bad. After all, this isn't like insurance where the spread of risk is accomplished by charging premiums to many to cover the losses of a few. Howver, with respect to insurance, it differentiates between pure risk and speculative risk. Insurance only deals with pure risk where purchasers want to protect themselves against fortuitous (accidental) events. Thus there is no possibility of a profit.The indemnity principle, integral to all insurance, implies that an insured is not allowed to profit from a misfortune.
However, when a debt buyer purchases a portfolio of debt, they are operting on speculative risk. They are doing so to make a profit and not to avoid unfortunate events Speculative risk in debt buying is a form of gambling utilizing the large of large numbers. The purchase of a large portfolio allows fairly reliable predictions of what investment returns will ensue.
Is there a correlation? Well, in insurance, we expect to pay a premium to cover losses which most likely other people will be responsible for. No one expects to get their car insurance premiums back because they didn't get into an accident last year. As stated, this is pure risk undertaken for self protection and not any possibility of a profit.
Conversely, when a debt buyer purchases a debt, they buy an asset that's a speculative risk. The value is determined by the amont of the debt times the probability of recovery, So a $10,000 debt that has a 5% chance of recovery has a value of no more than $500. Each individual debt carries a certain risk which largely determines its market value. That risk is detemined by what the response will be of a large number of debtors. If 95 out of 100 choose not to make a payment, is the one who does responsible for the failures of the other 19? Should the one who responds be held accountable for the 19 who didn't? Using this criterion, a debtor might feel they should only offer PMS 5% instead of 85%.
Another view is that when a creditor sells an debt, all the rights attached to and interest in the asset or receivable are transferred to the buyer. Clearly those interests include the right to 100% of the original amount owing. Though the market value of the asset might be low, it's because the chance of realizing those rights by recovering any money on any one account is low. However, that still doesn't negate the fact that a full right to 100% of the money existed at the time of a debt's sale and was transferred to the buyer. Seen from this point of view, the scuzzy debt buyer has a right to 100% of the money.
Ray